Eunuchism in Prehistory
Posted: Sun Oct 28, 2007 3:59 pm
To my knowledge, generally accepted records indicate that there have been eunuchs in human populations ever since the beginning of recorded history, somewhere around 5500 years ago, or perhaps a little earlier than that. In fact, it appears that, until the Ottoman and Chinese empires came to an end in the second decade of the last century, throughout recorded history there were always societies in which eunuchs were recognized as members of those societies, and in which eunuchs had distinct roles. Of course, throughout the twentieth century and up to the present day, hijras have existed in India and have been identified as a distinct group--but they have been treated (at least until very recently) as outcasts. They also could be considered transgender individuals, rather than eunuchs per se.
But recorded history is only a very small percentage of the period in which human beings have been present on the earth. If you accept that all the hominids ancestral to modern man, can be considered humans; then the human race has existed for more than five million years--and recorded history represents only about a tenth of one percent of that time span. Even if a more restricted definition is used, and only the species homo sapiens is considered human (homo sapiens may have been the first creature in its genetic line that was not furry.), then recorded history is still less than three percent of the period during which human beings have existed, since homo sapiens sapiens appears to have originated something like two hundred thousand years ago.
And it seems reasonable to assume that eunuchs were a part of human populations through all of the time that can be considered prehistory, before the invention of writing. As is the situation today, a small percentage of individuals must have been born with a penis and scrotum, but no testes or non-functional testes--there must have been some congenital eunuchs. Besides that, the testes are a relatively vulnerable part of the body, and they would have been even more vulnerable before people started to wear clothing--something which may not have occurred before the species left Africa. And the lifestyle which people followed was somewhat more rugged than that followed by people since the Neolithic; so, for both those reasons, severe injury to the testes or traumatic loss of the organs was probably somewhat more common than it is today. In conflicts between people, the scrotum is easily grabbed, and could sometimes have been torn off. In a period before the legal order was established, men may have often severed the scrotums of their enemies for revenge, and women may have done something similar because of frustration or resentment. And, of course, since there appear to have been eunuchs who were intentionally castrated for various purposes, at or near the beginning of recorded history, the practice of removing the testes to make eunuchs may have begun in the late phases of prehistory. In addition to that, as members of this archive are aware, some individuals experience gender dysphoria, and some males in prehistory may have amputated their own organs, or had someone else amputate their gonads.
So if eunuchs were part of the human population throughout the period between the origin of homo sapiens, and the beginning of recorded history; then most of the time when eunuchs have lived as members of human groups or societies, must have been in prehistory. Of course, because no records were produced during that period (or, at least, none have survived) it's not possible to know much about the era. Except for a few fragmentary bits of information derived from archaeology or paleontology, we know very little about that very long expanse of time. For long stretches of perhistory, the only way we know that humans were living at those times, is the fact that human beings lived both before them and afterward.
Consequently, a lot of people might consider it useless to speculate about what the circumstances were in which eunuchs lived during prehistory, and what their influence, if any, on the development of the human race, might have been. But, in my view, the overwhelming length of the time period involved, in terms of the total chronology of the human experience, suggests that it is worthwhile to speculate about the role of eunuchs in prehistory, or at least to acknowledge that the period actually represents most of the time in which individuals who had male bodies, but who lacked functional gonads, existed.
In my view, it's an interesting and worthwhile question, whether it's likely that eunuchs were actually recognized to be different than uncastrated males, and whether they were accorded some specific role in society because of it. In an area before clothes were worn, or, perhaps, before clothing was worn all the time, it would have been easy for members of a group to identify that certain individuals lacked male gonads. Even after people began to wear clothing, it seems likely that people in any group easily became aware that certain individuals didn't have testes, or that their physical characteristics showed them to differ from men who had functional gonads.
Would this have made them outcasts? I doubt it. As far as we know, most groups of people were quite small through most of prehistory, and the larger the group, the more likely it was to survive, even if some members were unable to reproduce. I would suspect that those who didn't have functional male gonads, if they were considered to be a distinct social type, probably were considered worthwhile members of the group. They might not have been allowed to mate--but, then, most of them probably wouldn't want to. And perhaps, if their personalities were gentler than those of the men in the group, they might have been given responsibilities in child care, in preference to men.
I don't think there is any archaeological or paleontological information at all about eunuchism in prehistory, and perhaps anything said about it has to be speculation. But, as I've indicated, the fact that there must have been eunuchs in prehistory, and the long duration of that period, means that it should at least be noted that there must have been males without gonads in societies of that time. I can't think offhand how anything definitive about individuals who lacked gonads and lived before the beginning of historical records, could ever be learned.
But recorded history is only a very small percentage of the period in which human beings have been present on the earth. If you accept that all the hominids ancestral to modern man, can be considered humans; then the human race has existed for more than five million years--and recorded history represents only about a tenth of one percent of that time span. Even if a more restricted definition is used, and only the species homo sapiens is considered human (homo sapiens may have been the first creature in its genetic line that was not furry.), then recorded history is still less than three percent of the period during which human beings have existed, since homo sapiens sapiens appears to have originated something like two hundred thousand years ago.
And it seems reasonable to assume that eunuchs were a part of human populations through all of the time that can be considered prehistory, before the invention of writing. As is the situation today, a small percentage of individuals must have been born with a penis and scrotum, but no testes or non-functional testes--there must have been some congenital eunuchs. Besides that, the testes are a relatively vulnerable part of the body, and they would have been even more vulnerable before people started to wear clothing--something which may not have occurred before the species left Africa. And the lifestyle which people followed was somewhat more rugged than that followed by people since the Neolithic; so, for both those reasons, severe injury to the testes or traumatic loss of the organs was probably somewhat more common than it is today. In conflicts between people, the scrotum is easily grabbed, and could sometimes have been torn off. In a period before the legal order was established, men may have often severed the scrotums of their enemies for revenge, and women may have done something similar because of frustration or resentment. And, of course, since there appear to have been eunuchs who were intentionally castrated for various purposes, at or near the beginning of recorded history, the practice of removing the testes to make eunuchs may have begun in the late phases of prehistory. In addition to that, as members of this archive are aware, some individuals experience gender dysphoria, and some males in prehistory may have amputated their own organs, or had someone else amputate their gonads.
So if eunuchs were part of the human population throughout the period between the origin of homo sapiens, and the beginning of recorded history; then most of the time when eunuchs have lived as members of human groups or societies, must have been in prehistory. Of course, because no records were produced during that period (or, at least, none have survived) it's not possible to know much about the era. Except for a few fragmentary bits of information derived from archaeology or paleontology, we know very little about that very long expanse of time. For long stretches of perhistory, the only way we know that humans were living at those times, is the fact that human beings lived both before them and afterward.
Consequently, a lot of people might consider it useless to speculate about what the circumstances were in which eunuchs lived during prehistory, and what their influence, if any, on the development of the human race, might have been. But, in my view, the overwhelming length of the time period involved, in terms of the total chronology of the human experience, suggests that it is worthwhile to speculate about the role of eunuchs in prehistory, or at least to acknowledge that the period actually represents most of the time in which individuals who had male bodies, but who lacked functional gonads, existed.
In my view, it's an interesting and worthwhile question, whether it's likely that eunuchs were actually recognized to be different than uncastrated males, and whether they were accorded some specific role in society because of it. In an area before clothes were worn, or, perhaps, before clothing was worn all the time, it would have been easy for members of a group to identify that certain individuals lacked male gonads. Even after people began to wear clothing, it seems likely that people in any group easily became aware that certain individuals didn't have testes, or that their physical characteristics showed them to differ from men who had functional gonads.
Would this have made them outcasts? I doubt it. As far as we know, most groups of people were quite small through most of prehistory, and the larger the group, the more likely it was to survive, even if some members were unable to reproduce. I would suspect that those who didn't have functional male gonads, if they were considered to be a distinct social type, probably were considered worthwhile members of the group. They might not have been allowed to mate--but, then, most of them probably wouldn't want to. And perhaps, if their personalities were gentler than those of the men in the group, they might have been given responsibilities in child care, in preference to men.
I don't think there is any archaeological or paleontological information at all about eunuchism in prehistory, and perhaps anything said about it has to be speculation. But, as I've indicated, the fact that there must have been eunuchs in prehistory, and the long duration of that period, means that it should at least be noted that there must have been males without gonads in societies of that time. I can't think offhand how anything definitive about individuals who lacked gonads and lived before the beginning of historical records, could ever be learned.